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Dec 29, 2021 at 9:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPolitics/status/1476115793419112450
Dec 26, 2021 at 14:07 answer added JERRY_XLII timeline score: 3
Dec 26, 2021 at 10:15 answer added Nemo timeline score: 1
Oct 27, 2018 at 15:04 comment added Pere After the statute of Westminster (1931) dominions were independent states from the United Kingdom. That is, if a dominion decided so, the British Parliament couldn't legislate for that dominion. In fact, Canada was also an independent state from the 1930s.
Jul 6, 2017 at 23:09 history edited Machavity CC BY-SA 3.0
Reworded title
Jul 6, 2017 at 20:43 history edited Bradley Wilson CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 3 characters in body
S Jul 2, 2017 at 10:57 history suggested owjburnham CC BY-SA 3.0
Changed "Great Britain" in title (it's only one part of the country) to "Britain" (which *is* an acceptable synoynm for the United Kingdom)
Jul 2, 2017 at 9:29 review Suggested edits
S Jul 2, 2017 at 10:57
Jun 30, 2017 at 17:25 vote accept Mr. Sigma.
Jun 30, 2017 at 15:25 comment added user15103 Britain did not give America its independence; the American colonists demanded it and won it by force of arms.
Jun 30, 2017 at 10:10 history edited Mr. Sigma. CC BY-SA 3.0
added 90 characters in body
Jun 30, 2017 at 7:40 comment added Relaxed What Britain had to do with India might not be the right question to ask. She was forced to grant the US full independence but after that did everything she could to retain at least some influence against the push for self-rule from various parts of the empire. The Dominion status was invented as a compromise for Canada. The same thing happened to Ireland after its war of independence. It was untenable in the long run but the British were not prepared to “absolve” anyone from allegiance to the crown so easily.
Jun 30, 2017 at 7:25 history edited Relaxed CC BY-SA 3.0
added 15 characters in body
Jun 30, 2017 at 7:08 answer added Bradley Wilson timeline score: 12
Jun 30, 2017 at 6:45 history asked Mr. Sigma. CC BY-SA 3.0