Timeline for Would it be illegal for the UK to negotiate a trade deal with the EU while still a member?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
19 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 18, 2019 at 16:59 | comment | added | Moyli | This was pretty much already covered in the earlier question (Is EU Treaty Article 50 (2) paradoxical?) | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 16:57 | comment | added | Lightness Races in Orbit | @JonathanReez I don't have a question about it. You feel free to do so ;) | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 16:07 | comment | added | JonathanReez | @LightnessRacesinOrbit feel free to open a separate question about this on Law.SE | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 16:05 | comment | added | Lightness Races in Orbit | @JonathanReez There are loads of illegal things you can do that have nothing to do with jail time. So to suggest that a thing can't be illegal because you can't go to jail because you are not a person is ridiculous. | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 16:04 | comment | added | JonathanReez | @LightnessRacesinOrbit illegal usually refers to violating laws that can eventually put you to jail and you cannot jail an entire state. Likewise violating a contract is not "illegal" as its merely a civil dispute, rather than an offence punishable by prison time. | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 16:02 | comment | added | JonathanReez | @Ben yes, "breaking a treaty" is the right word. | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 16:00 | comment | added | Lightness Races in Orbit | @JonathanReez Laws apply to whatever they say they apply to. You may however argue that an entity is unlikely to enforce a law against itself, and I'd argue that you'd be right :) In this case we're probably talking about a loose definition for "illegal" though, in the sense of "in violation of the treaties that make up the EU relationship" (we could term this a kind of international law, but I'm not going to go there), which certainly does apply to States. | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 15:58 | comment | added | 52d6c6af | Would “breaking prior treaty commitments” be a better description? | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 15:56 | comment | added | JonathanReez | @LightnessRacesinOrbit nope. Laws apply to people, not to states. | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 15:54 | comment | added | Lightness Races in Orbit | @JonathanReez By definition, if you break a law, you did an illegal thing, even if you're the one who came up with the law, no? | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 15:45 | comment | added | JonathanReez | Remember: "illegal" only applies to companies and individual citizens. States as a whole cannot violate a law as they're the ones writing the laws. | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 15:11 | answer | added | o.m. | timeline score: 9 | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 15:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPolitics/status/1086277219322720257 | ||
| Jan 18, 2019 at 14:04 | history | edited | 52d6c6af | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jan 18, 2019 at 11:11 | vote | accept | 52d6c6af | ||
| Jan 18, 2019 at 10:49 | answer | added | user16642 | timeline score: 21 | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 10:39 | history | edited | Panda |
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| Jan 18, 2019 at 10:25 | answer | added | user | timeline score: 10 | |
| Jan 18, 2019 at 10:05 | history | asked | 52d6c6af | CC BY-SA 4.0 |