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Nov 12, 2020 at 19:58 history edited Adam Gyenge CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12, 2020 at 19:56 comment added Adam Gyenge @Hulk. Sure, that was the main reason why they could do the whole thing. But to make it look a littlebit more official to the world, they needed some kind of election results. If they were just taking the power with brute force they could not sell themselves as being better than the previous regime.
Nov 12, 2020 at 19:52 comment added Adam Gyenge @Arno. Ok, it's true that they were already in the government, and it was just one of the many step in turning to a dictatorship. But that election is still considered as a turning point, when they started to become the dominant party.
Nov 12, 2020 at 14:02 comment added Hulk ...and the presence of the soviet army probably also influenced events a bit.
Nov 12, 2020 at 14:00 comment added Arno Based on the Wikipedia article, this doesn't seem to fit the question. The communists were part of a coalition government before and after the 1947 elections, and the estimated number of fraudulent votes is much less than the difference between the communist's vote and the second strongest party. So election fraud seems to have been a very minor component of their power grab.
Nov 12, 2020 at 13:48 history edited Adam Gyenge CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12, 2020 at 13:28 history edited Adam Gyenge CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12, 2020 at 13:19 history edited Adam Gyenge CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12, 2020 at 13:13 history answered Adam Gyenge CC BY-SA 4.0