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Jan 17 at 9:51 comment added Erel Segal-Halevi @MathematicsStudent1122 Converting to Judaism is indeed more demanding than converting to other religions, as it requires a thorough knowledge of Judaism, rather than a simple declarative ceremony. Still, the main difficulty in conversion does not lie in the process itself, but in the cultural and social aspects, and these difficulties are the same for all religions.
Jan 17 at 3:56 comment added Stop Gaza Genocide It is obvious that you are referring to Israel and Jews. But Jews are not exactly a typical religious group. They are in practice more akin to a race. Yes, there are conversions to Judaism, but these are few and far between.
Jan 13 at 0:40 answer added Gaslight Deceive Subvert timeline score: 2
Jan 12 at 3:26 answer added Italian Philosopher timeline score: 5
Jan 12 at 2:25 answer added Peter timeline score: 1
Jan 12 at 0:36 answer added JonathanReez timeline score: -3
Jan 12 at 0:24 answer added sfxedit timeline score: 1
Jan 11 at 13:51 history reopened Italian Philosopher
SurpriseDog
Wag the mainstream media dog
Toffomat
Charlie Evans
Jan 11 at 9:59 vote accept Erel Segal-Halevi
Jan 11 at 1:27 comment added Gaslight Deceive Subvert It's a yes/no question with the answer NO. Finding references supporting that claim may be difficult since to a legal scholar the answer is so obvious. I don't see why it wouldn't be on topic for this site, though.
Jan 11 at 1:07 history edited Italian Philosopher
edited tags
Jan 11 at 1:07 review Reopen votes
Jan 11 at 14:04
Jan 11 at 0:51 history closed C.F.G
Joe W
Ben Cohen
James K
ohwilleke
Opinion-based
Jan 10 at 23:37 comment added Italian Philosopher Agree though that we could lose the Israel n Palestine tags. Or any country/religion tags, really. We already have a question about apartheid and Israel, no need to rehash. But a more generic question about comparing religious preferences/persecutions and apartheid, or defining the term "apartheid" itself, seems on point and relevant to governments, policies and political processes. Not least, look how more civil the comments are in this instance, without referring overmuch to current events.
Jan 10 at 21:19 history became hot network question
Jan 10 at 20:42 comment added sfxedit @Jacob3 For the purpose of this question, you can cite the UN or international human rights organisation as they are ones who claim this in the context of the Israel-Palestine issue.
Jan 10 at 20:41 comment added user48321 In this definition, who or what is the judge of what constitutes a "racial group"?
Jan 10 at 20:32 comment added Italian Philosopher Will vote to reopen if needed. "Apartheid" is fairly frequently used in a political context - and not always appropriately either - so trying to define what it describes surely is on topic for this site.
Jan 10 at 20:31 comment added Jacob3 @sfxedit, Accusations are made when the defendent is denying them. The Russian Tzar was never accused for "Dictatorship", and the "Islamic Republic" cannot be accused for granting Islam a special status over all other religions - they pride themselves with it.
Jan 10 at 19:48 comment added sfxedit @Jacob3 Can you provide a citation that Iran has been accused of "crime of apartheid" due to religious reason? If so you can add the Iran tag too to the question.
Jan 10 at 19:00 comment added Jacob3 Why tag only Israel and Palestine? The Islamic Republic of Iran seems like the best example for this question. Israeli-Muslim citizens have equal rights, Iranian-Jewish citizens don't.
Jan 10 at 17:54 review Suggested edits
Jan 10 at 19:49
Jan 10 at 17:51 history edited sfxedit
Included relevant tags as this question of religion and apartheid often comes up in the context of the Israel-Palestine issue.
Jan 10 at 17:49 comment added sfxedit Voting not to close - This is a Q that is seeking clarification on a political process / legal definition and thus is on topic here. (I have added Israel and Palestine tag as this question of "religion" and "apartheid" often comes up in reference to Israel and Palestine).
Jan 10 at 17:33 comment added Stuart F If there was genuinely a high rate of conversion between religions, no barriers to conversion (including parents and relatives being happy about it), and no discrimination against people based on their ancestral religion (or related factors if religion is associated with wealth, residence in certain areas, etc), then that would be one thing. But that doesn't seem to happen in the real world. If you're asking what the definition of apartheid is, you can go read it. If you're asking if it's possible to have high religious mobility with no blocks or discrimination, that's another question.
Jan 10 at 15:37 review Close votes
Jan 11 at 0:57
Jan 10 at 14:55 comment added C.F.G @whoisit: ICJ or UN definition apparently.
Jan 10 at 14:46 comment added whoisit which definition of apartheid are you willing to consider? Different people/orgs will define differently.
Jan 10 at 14:45 history edited whoisit CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
Jan 10 at 13:43 answer added Stančikas timeline score: 9
Jan 10 at 13:31 answer added Wag the mainstream media dog timeline score: 14
Jan 10 at 13:15 history asked Erel Segal-Halevi CC BY-SA 4.0