Timeline for Why can't countries simply reclassify any part of someone else's land as an overseas territory to avoid decolonization processes?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 6 at 0:11 | comment | added | ohwilleke♦ | One can also avoid the decoloniziation process by ignoring it. See, e.g., Puerto Rico, which has neither full democratic rights in the country that claims it, nor independence. | |
| Aug 4 at 11:21 | comment | added | 264 champagne bottles on ice | The term that the UN uses to discuss such entities that might be entitled to independence is "Non-Self-Governing Territories". OTOH there's been a lot politicking what to include or not in that list. OTOH the UN has a "Special Committee on Decolonization" un.org/dppa/decolonization/en/c24/about which was established a long time ago history.state.gov/milestones/1945-1952/asia-and-africa | |
| Aug 4 at 9:42 | history | edited | Schwarz Kugelblitz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 65 characters in body
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| Aug 4 at 9:41 | comment | added | Schwarz Kugelblitz | Part of my question is "what makes a colony not part of the country and an overseas territory part of the country?" | |
| Aug 3 at 23:50 | answer | added | Ted Wrigley | timeline score: -2 | |
| Aug 3 at 22:13 | comment | added | 264 champagne bottles on ice | Also, the title Q and the last para question differ. The title Q seems to assume the answer to the last-para Q is 'yes'. | |
| Aug 3 at 22:10 | comment | added | 264 champagne bottles on ice | Not my DV, and I'm not super familiar with the framing of these [decolonization] discussions, but off the top of my head, one country can declare whatever they want (see e.g. Russia's declarations in re parts of Ukraine or China's declaration in re parts of India etc.) but unilateral declarations are usually hardly the end of such discussions. | |
| Aug 3 at 21:52 | answer | added | Obie 2.0 | timeline score: 7 | |
| Aug 3 at 21:52 | comment | added | Italian Philosopher | Might want to consider that lot of the French overseas territories would be unviable economically and may not actually want independence. Nor was, for example, St. Martin much of "someone else's land", as - being very lacking in fresh water - it had an extremely low, if any, native population prior to colonization, and those people (Arawaks or Caraibs) are now long gone. Source: I lived there for 8+ years. Residents are also fully French citizens. | |
| Aug 3 at 21:36 | comment | added | Joe W | Isn't an overseas territory part of the country in question while a colony isn't? | |
| Aug 3 at 21:19 | history | asked | Schwarz Kugelblitz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |