Is it permissible for an elected independent candidate or elected representative of a political party to switch his party he is elected from to a more politically advantageous party at his own will ? Is it his right to do so after his election?
Is not a fresh re-election process mandatory? Is change of political party not a betrayal of trust reposed by the electorate in a leader or party he represents in a democratic setup?
What is the practice in leading democracies of the world? Are these written into the Constitution e.g., in the Representation of Peoples' act?
EDIT1
A simple mathematical model would not be out of place.
All activities on a political sphere S are built upon two independent parameters p,q where p can symbolize the party and q the elected individual.
By choosing a particular binding function q=f(p) the people can arrest arbitrary modalities of q to freely move on S to be along a constrained functioning curve or orbit.
By a people's political contract, if q is chosen by the people for p and then a change of f(p,q) occurs then it has lost its previous sense of direction of the locus of its previous orbit. The new trajectory can even intersect squarely with the previous one.The elected q laughs all the way with his new self-issued valid passport of election with full impunity in his empowered hands. The name of the beneficiary has been conveniently erased and and a new name inserted on a check that had been temporarily rendered blank before the desired edit. The electing people are taken in for a .. not so jolly ride into a maneuver over which they have no control until the next elections come around.
The Art of political lying by Jonathan Swift exists even today this way in a modern appearance in several democracies.
If q wishes to change party in a proper procedural system then he/she cannot be allowed do so by a virtue of a vote gained from a different party. He/she should get re-elected by the electorate affirming their unequivocal assent for a new situation or policy properly stated or expounded before them. Then only the power of people in a democracy run by the people can be in proper effect for the people.
Should n't there be a more democratic Rule of Law against it? Or a Constitutional amendment ?