What percentage of US mass murderers do not have a father figure in their household?

For this question, mass murder is

The FBI defines mass murder as murdering four or more persons during an event with no "cooling-off period" between the murders.

For this question, a father figure is a male member of the household who acts as the father, either married or living together with the woman, and is present for a majority of the perpetrator's life below the age of 18.

There might not be data that matches the exact definitions so best available is OK.

closed as off-topic by JJ for Transparency and Monica, Stormblessed, Alone Programmer, Reinstate Monica - M. Schröder, divibisan Oct 13 at 18:26

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "This question does not appear to be about governments, policies and political processes within the scope defined in the help center." – JJ for Transparency and Monica, Stormblessed, Alone Programmer, Reinstate Monica - M. Schröder, divibisan
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  • 2
    This is not really about politics at all. It has a tangent that touches some policies but really should be off topic here – SoylentGray Apr 29 '16 at 20:45
  • 2
    This is very much a political issue, and both mass murder and social policy are important in politics today. The American Political Science Review has two articles on violent crime and causes of criminality, in this quarter alone. Both Mass Killings (usually in the from of mass shootings) and social policies causes and effects are major issues in the current election. – The Pompitous of Love May 9 '16 at 13:19
  • 1
    @blip How do you know there is no causation? If you have data or are aware of a study that shows the lack of causation between father figures, you should answer the question. If not, finding data about mass murderers and whether or not they had a father figure would be the first step in determining whether there is a causation or not. Until those data are collected, we have no way of knowing whether or not the question is specious. – The Pompitous of Love May 10 '16 at 12:43
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    @blip the question is relevant regardless of the correlation. The IV and the DV are both important to politics. Therefore this is an empirical political question. Even if only one of the variables we're political, it would still be relevant to politics. The fact that the causation remains in question is why it is a question at all. – The Pompitous of Love May 10 '16 at 15:13
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    @blip The role of social structure (e.g. the family) in creating political outcomes has a long tradition in political science and sociology, and this question is a natural outgrowth of several ongoing research agendas. Starting with Moynihan The Negro Family through to Murray Coming Apart, many political scientists have and continue to look at the role family structure in shaping things including crime, It would be a natural extension of that research project to ask whether or not the effects can be extended to Mass Murder. – The Pompitous of Love May 10 '16 at 17:00

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