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Looking at the Spanish language distribution in the US one can see that English is slowly losing its dominant status in the southern parts:

spanish in usa

So why don't American politicians attempt to restrict the use of Spanish and promote English instead? Are there any government plans to attempt to reverse the hispanicization of the US? For an example of language enforcement in France, see this Wiki article about the Toubon Law.

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    This map does not show that English is losing its dominance. You need at least two points in time to show a change over time. Compare it to a map from 1835 and I think you'll find that it shows an increase in the prominence of English. (Hint: most of the brown areas were Mexico in 1835).
    – phoog
    May 10 '17 at 8:27
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    So what? The question seems to presuppose a national interest in the suppression of Spanish. Why should the US want to suppress it?
    – phoog
    May 10 '17 at 8:46
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    @phoog well, New Mexico used to be a part of Mexico, so they also have plenty of historical connections to the Spanish culture. If that's not true and Spanish speakers in the US don't want any special concessions and fully support the integrity of the country - feel free to add your own answer. May 10 '17 at 9:08
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    @JonathanReez - PR is a poor example - they were always independent(ish) and not a state; and there's also a strong pro-joining sentiment there as well.
    – user4012
    May 10 '17 at 14:48
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    That is an unrelated issue. The idea that different language equals to support for independence is naive at best (look at Switzerland), and certainly it makes it seem as if you are asking two different questions (1 - Trends in Spanish use?, 2 - Use of Spanish == political risk?).
    – SJuan76
    May 10 '17 at 15:08
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The U.S. has no formally recognized official language. There have been attempts to declare English the official language, but none have been successful. There have been successful attempts in the U.S. to limit other languages from gaining prominence or reduce their use. German was extremely common in the original colonies, but English advocates were successful in defeating votes to print official documents in German in addition to English.

France in contrast has French as an official language, and is also very active in promoting and defending the use of French as a language. France also has an official body dedicated to regulating French as a language which helps with the perception of them more actively promoting French than the U.S. promotes English.

While the U.S. may not do much in the way of official support of English there is a huge amount of soft pressure created by trade dominance, tourism, the internet, etc. The current political climate also limits to a small degree what the U.S. could do to support English without being labeled xenophobic, Racist, Imperial, or otherwise criticized.

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  • But isn't the US afraid of losing it's southern properties once enough people become "Spaniards" rather than "Americans"? May 10 '17 at 12:20
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    @JonathanReez - they are states, not "properties". And absent Mexico starting and winning a war to conquer them (or said states starting and winning a civil war to secede - last time it was tried it didn't turn out well), it can't "lose" them.
    – user4012
    May 10 '17 at 14:50
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    @JonathanReez the Spanish-speaking people in the US are in vast proportion no more Spaniards than are the English-speaking population Englishmen and -women. There's a far more important issue in the question of secession: economic well being. Catalonia and Quebec probably have less to lose by leaving Spain and Canada than would New Mexico by leaving the US.
    – phoog
    May 13 '17 at 16:17
  • Just to say, we french people do have the "Academie Francaise" but we usually ... how do you say this ... fart in their general direction. They are arbiters of what's "proper" French, but baguette to that. May 15 '19 at 11:26

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