This applies at least in Canada and England.

Wondering what provision if any offsets this apparent advantage/disadvantage.

  • For England, please read the UK. Many people take the distinction very seriously.
    – origimbo
    May 19, 2017 at 21:16
  • "unfair" is always going to be opinion.
    – user9389
    May 19, 2017 at 23:59
  • 2
    Perhaps you could ask how much of an advantage it is, or for times when it obviously has or hasn't been one. The government has a ton of advantages eg when to introduce a budget or other confidence motion, setting up committees to adjust riding boundaries, etc. Generally speaking this hasn't led to rampant unfairness and it might be interesting to ask why that happens rather than whether or not one advantage is binary fair/unfair. May 20, 2017 at 13:14
  • In the UK, the prime minister no longer has the ability to unilaterally decide the date of the next election. They require a supermajority vote to hold an election early, so the opposition has to consent.
    – Brythan
    May 20, 2017 at 13:50

1 Answer 1


The PM can be wrong. Look at Canada's 1984 election. PM Turner called an election holding a 35 seat advantage. After the election, his party was down 171 seats compared to the majority party.

Whether this makes the process fair or unfair is a not really a question we can answer for you.

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