Does any political system in the world have electoral vote weighting based on the voter's fiscal contribution? The premise being that the taxes paid are a reasonable approximation of merit and value to society that should determine how much the vote counts. What would be a name for such a policy doctrine?

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    Note to answerers/comments: this isn't asking about voter's wealth/income; but specifically taxes paid. E.g. "only land owners can vote" doesn't fit; poll taxes do (being a degenerate binary version of the continuum; and like all degenerate cases in science, being pretty boring). – user4012 Jun 1 '17 at 13:50
  • Similar to This Question – lazarusL Jun 1 '17 at 15:24

This sounds like weighted voting.

I do not believe that there is a specific name for weighting the vote based on taxes, but a description for the system as a whole would be plutocracy.

I do not believe that there are any countries that actually practice this form of voting - it would be in conflict with the principles of democracy - universal suffrage, one man one vote, etc - , and undemocratic countries generally do not require a voting system in the first place. Note also that it would not work well with the secrecy of the ballot, which is another important principle for most democracies.

The closest example might be the Irish free state. As mentioned by user4012, poll taxes might also be an example.

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  • undemocratic countries generally do not require a voting system in the first place — you don't say, isn't it part of the definition? – user28434 Jun 1 '17 at 15:02

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