This other question asks whether a US citizen can sue the government for failing to uphold criminal laws. While the question is different, the answer is largely the same, so all quotes below are from the accepted answer by Avi.
This is for a large number of reasons. First, both the State and Federal governments have sovereign immunity, according to the Supreme Court. This says means that you cannot sue the government unless it has, in some statute, consented to the suit.
As far as I know, there are no laws in place which allow you to sue the government for anything its intelligence arms do to a foreign country, and the presence of such a law would be very crippling to the government's interests.
To bring a suit, you must have standing. To have standing, it is generally required that you are suffering or will imminently suffer an actual injury as a result of some action on the part of the party you are suing, and that this injury is redressible by a favorable legal decision.
The problem here is that you have likely not suffered an injury, nor will you imminently. Dangerous as this group may generally be, unless you can demonstrate that you specifically have or imminently will suffer an injury, and can reasonably trace this injury to government action, you won't have standing to sue. The Court has required a high degree of specificity and certainty when claiming standing due to imminently impending injury; see, for example, L.A. v. Lyons 461 U.S. 95 (1983), Lujan v. Defenders of Wildlife 504 U.S. 555 (1992), Clapper v. Amnesty International 568 U.S. ___ (2013).
In other words, you would have to show that you, personally were harmed by the Iran coup, or possibly even by the CIA's specific actions in supporting it. Obviously, someone who lost family to the coup and has since become a US citizen could argue that they have standing, but they still wouldn't have an applicable law to sue under.