This follows a question of mine on expatriates.SX:
One of the answers there suggests that US gun violence is not as bad as the overall statistics make it look, because supposedly it's mostly confined to violence among "criminals".
Ignoring the problematics of that categorization (false dichotomy between criminals and "normal" people, committing a crime does not make that a defining feature of who a person is, criminal system bias against poorer and minority subjects etc.), suppose we define a "criminal otherwise than in an incident" as a person who has been convicted of a criminal offense such as: burglary, car theft, robbery, aggravated assault, extortion, homicide, manslaughter - at any time in his/her life, except for some specified incident.
Now, with that convoluted definition - how may gun violence incidents in the US were there, in any of the years 2010-2014:
- Overall (for normalization)?
- Which have had the gun used by a criminal other than in that incident?
- In which both most involved parties (e.g. perpatrator and victim) were criminals other than in that incident?
- I know I'm being rather picky about the statistics here, so if you have a statistic which is close to what I'm after or can allow for a "guesstiamtion", that would help too.
- You can add some additional crimes in the same vein as those I listed (but please make that explicit).
- I haven't defined what a "gun violence incident" is. Let's say I'm interested both in incidents in which a gun was actually fired (intentionally or by accident), and incidents in which a gun was either fired or was used to threaten someone. But whatever definition your statistics use is fine.
- If you can separate out domestic (=intra-family) violence, that would be nice.