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China won the 1962 war decisively.

Why did they release all the occupied land (i.e. Arunachal) in favor of India?

If they released the land, why do they still accuse India of occupying Arunachal (another link)?

  • The geology there makes it pretty hard to defend, so they had to release the land although they didn't really want to. – user3528438 Nov 6 '17 at 15:39
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After a very successful invasion in ’62, India received offers of support from the USA, the UK and the USSR. Mao appears to have made a judgement that the region was not worth the bloodshed that would be required to defend it from an India supported by the other major powers. He had achieved his strategic aim of demonstrating the superiority of the PLA over the Indian Army, so he withdrew.

However, while China recognises a de facto line of control, it doesn't recognise the legality of the current de facto border. The official position is that the only justification for India to occupy the region is a treaty signed between the British and Tibet, and China doesn't recognise the right of Tibet to form a treaty.

To recognise that India has a right to the region would be implicitly recognise that Tibet was an independent state, and this is anathema to the PRC government

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    ...India received offers of support from the USA, the UK and the USSR. --- citation needed. – user17569 Nov 4 '17 at 18:02
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    Your 1st links talks only about USSR. The second link (Wikipedia) points to a narrator named Dibyesh Anand who is an Indian. Do you have any other source to cite from? – user17569 Nov 4 '17 at 20:04
  • I suggest that you edit your 1st sentence to something like "After ... invasion by China into Arunachal in 1962, ...". Without this those who are ignorant of who did what to who when may read that backwards and be confused. hTis is somewhat clarified by your following text but the brain tears gently (mine did anyway) as the meaning resolves. – Russell McMahon Oct 18 at 23:14

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