The Republican tax plan was just passed, but there is some uproar over the handwritten portions of the plan. Obviously, at first all bills were handwritten, but I'm curious if there were some practices which were in place then which may have faded as bills became predominantly typed.
Mainly, I am curious how/when it is decided what text is considered part of the bill.
That is, there are a few handwritten sentences which Democratic senators have stated are illegible. With a typed bill, there's no question as to what the literal text of a sentence is, however it seems on this bill there is. At the risk of a strawman, I believe there have been several instances where the exact text in a bill has been significant 1.
So then, at what moment is the text on the bill defined? In other words, do we need to work out if that word says "some" or "same" (made up example) before it's voted upon? At 500 pages, I assume this didn't happen unless it was only for the handwritten portions. On the other hand, determining what a bill said only as that part becomes relevant is obviously not a reasonable approach.
At what point is the text in a bill defined and deemed binding?
1 Even if this isn't true, I'm still curious about the question.