According to Deutsche Welle the European Parliament backed the EU Commission in triggering article 7 against Poland:
The European Parliament has backed a resolution supporting a recommendation from the European Commission to invoke Article 7 against Poland. The lawmakers voted in favor of taking action against Poland for undermining the EU rule of law with reforms to the Polish judiciary.
This is a step towards the theoretical end of Poland's losing of voting rights. However, this seems very unlikely due to Hungary's opposition:
Taking away Poland's EU voting rights would still be unlikely as it would require agreement from all the member states. Hungarian Prime Minister Viktor Orban has said he would block any such action against his Polish ally.
(by all member states I understand all member states except the one targeted for losing voting rights).
Assuming that Hungary somehow faces the same issue (article 7 triggering) I am wondering if their voting rights can be lost at the same time (using the trick described in the following question).
Question: Can the EU Commission obtain an agreement of all member states by having voting rights discussed for two countries at once?
NOTE: My question should be treated as a general one (any two countries facing voting rights suspension). I have chosen Poland and Hungary only because Poland has just made another step towards losing the voting rights and Hungary supports Poland