Assume that:
- The UK withdraws its Article 50 notice (or purports to do so) as the ECJ says it can.
- The UK waits for whatever length of time is politically expedient. Optionally, the UK holds a "people's vote" at this step, or does other things that would reasonably affect Brexit negotiations such as holding a general election.
- The UK sends the EU notice pursuant to Article 50 that it intends to withdraw from the EU.
- Said notice expressly disclaims that it is in any way a continuation of the previous Brexit process.
Does the "clock" start over at two years, or would the UK still have to leave in March 2019?
And if the clock does not start over, what if step 2 takes so long that it's April by the time we get to step 3?