Women in Switzerland were only given the right to vote on a federal level in 1971, a time when every single European country had given women the franchise decades prior, and a time when pretty much every country in the world had done so.
Not only that, but in the referendum of 1971 that enfranchised women, only 65.7% of men (only men could vote) voted in the affirmative to allow women to vote, while 34.3% voted in the negative. In 8 cantons of the then 25, less than 50% of voters voted in the affirmative for women's suffrage, as this map shows.
Yes, it's true that at the canton level some cantons allowed women to vote as early as 1959 on local issues, but I consider this still extremely late as every single European country, except for two microstates, had already achieved this. Also, in the canton of Appenzell Innerrhoden women weren't allowed to vote for local issues until a law suit was brought by two women and won, resulting in the Swiss Federal Court decision in 1991 to allow women to vote in that canton.
I'm very surprised to hear this, and I can't understand why a country like Switzerland denied this basic right to women when pretty much every other single country in the world had removed this outdated restriction. I thought that equal women's suffrage had been an issue which had been fought and settled in "the West" (let's call it) mostly between the start of last century and about the end of WW2.
Is there something particular to Switzerland for why it trailed so far behind other "Western" countries in this regard, and also for why even at 1971 less than two thirds of men voted to extend the franchise to women?
Also, I'm not sure if this question is more suited to the History SE.