A mayor may say, only residents can vote. And each resident must pay $20k to buy residency at market price.
Can a mayor do that?
In general, is it possible that a city is "privatized" like malls? In private malls, the malls decide who can be a tenant on those malls right. Can a city be like that?
For example, can an experimental city levy "poll taxes" or give resident dividend?
Say a city is filled with ancaps. Say those ancaps want only ancaps to be able to vote for cities' policy. They may want to say, you know, this city is privately owned and only shareholders can stay. Hence, only those who think ancap is so good they're willing to pay $20k for it stay in the city.