0

The United States has blocked shipment of F-35 technology to Turkey over a Turkish decision to purchase S-400 surface-to-air missile systems from Russia. Why didn't Turkey wait until they had acquired the F-35 technology and it was fully integrated into their military before going to Russia for air defense technology? The United States would then be unable to prevent Turkey from obtaining both technologies.

Could it be simply an internal acquisition schedule unrelated to politics? Or maybe the sale of F-35s entails long term support that the US could withhold, placing them in the same position they are in today?

closed as off-topic by Denis de Bernardy, Glorfindel, JJJ, John Dallman, Machavity May 24 at 18:27

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Questions asking for the internal motivations of people, how specific individuals would behave in hypothetical situations or predictions for future events are off-topic, because answers would be based on speculation and their correctness could not be verified with sources available to the public." – Denis de Bernardy, Glorfindel, JJJ, John Dallman, Machavity
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

2

Your last thought is correct. Having the plane and no spare parts to fly it would be worse than not having it at all.

  • 3
    If it were only parts - the F-35 most likely needs regular software updates/patches. I doubt that one can operate it "offline" from the USA for very long. – Martin Schröder May 24 at 19:57

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.