The White House has sent a letter to Speaker Nancy Pelosi and several heads of committees, refusing to cooperate with the impeachment investigation. The argument is that the investigation is illegitimate for a range of reasons.
I would like to focus on just one of those reasons:
In the history of our Nation, the House of Representatives has never attempted to launch an impeachment inquiry against the President without a majority of the House taking political accountability for that decision by voting to authorize such a dramatic constitutional step.
- Is it true that all previous impeachment inquiries began with the House voting for it, and that this one didn't?
- If so, why didn't they do so this time? Doesn't the Democratic Party have the numbers in the House to win such a vote?
- Aside from "it's always been done that way", is there other support for the letter's assertion that such a vote is "necessary authorization of a valid impeachment proceeding" (emphasis added)?
EDIT: Wow, okay, my search-fu is weak. I don't know that the other question exactly covers all I was asking... but the accepted answer to it does. Thanks!
