5

I read on https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Vienna_Convention_on_Road_Traffic&oldid=919574725#Contracting_parties:

The United States and China are the most notable examples of non-signatory countries. Short-term tourists are not permitted to bring cars into China. All foreign-registered vehicles in China must display a Chinese vehicle registration plate.

Why didn't the United States sign the 1968 Vienna Convention on Road Traffic, whereas it had ratified the 1949 Vienna Convention on Road Traffic?

Improve this question
2
  • 3
    Not only did the US not ratify the 1968 Convention, they didn't even sign it.
    – Fizz
    Oct 17, 2019 at 3:19
  • 2
    Also the US has even ratified the 1949 Convention on Road Traffic. (Signed: 19 Sep 1949, Ratified: 30 Aug 1950).
    – Fizz
    Oct 17, 2019 at 3:40

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
7

Those agreements standardized drivers license among other things.

The federal government lacks the power to regulate drivers licenses.

The 1949 agreement was for international driving permits, 68 had domestic permits.

Improve this answer
4
  • 2
    Thanks, if the federal government lacks the power to regulate drivers licenses, how comes they ratified the 1949 Vienna Convention on Road Traffic?
    – Franck Dernoncourt
    Oct 17, 2019 at 3:59
  • 2
    The 49 agreement was international permits, the 68 would be domestic permits federal government doesn't regulate.
    – user28618
    Oct 17, 2019 at 4:13
  • 2
    This sounds plausible. The '68 Convention sets out some precise criteria for the format of domestic permits in its Annex 6 (which is non-optional).
    – Fizz
    Oct 17, 2019 at 4:29
  • The federal government can do things it wouldn't normally be able to do when treaties are concerned, though (the ur-example possibly being the Migratory Bird Treaty Act).
    – Vikki
    Feb 23, 2022 at 8:28

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .