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I read on https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Vienna_Convention_on_Road_Traffic&oldid=919574725#Contracting_parties:

The United States and China are the most notable examples of non-signatory countries. Short-term tourists are not permitted to bring cars into China. All foreign-registered vehicles in China must display a Chinese vehicle registration plate.

Why didn't the United States sign the 1968 Vienna Convention on Road Traffic, whereas it had ratified the 1949 Vienna Convention on Road Traffic?

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    Not only did the US not ratify the 1968 Convention, they didn't even sign it. – Fizz Oct 17 '19 at 3:19
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    Also the US has even ratified the 1949 Convention on Road Traffic. (Signed: 19 Sep 1949, Ratified: 30 Aug 1950). – Fizz Oct 17 '19 at 3:40
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Those agreements standardized drivers license among other things.

The federal government lacks the power to regulate drivers licenses.

The 1949 agreement was for international driving permits, 68 had domestic permits.

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    Thanks, if the federal government lacks the power to regulate drivers licenses, how comes they ratified the 1949 Vienna Convention on Road Traffic? – Franck Dernoncourt Oct 17 '19 at 3:59
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    The 49 agreement was international permits, the 68 would be domestic permits federal government doesn't regulate. – user28618 Oct 17 '19 at 4:13
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    This sounds plausible. The '68 Convention sets out some precise criteria for the format of domestic permits in its Annex 6 (which is non-optional). – Fizz Oct 17 '19 at 4:29

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