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Why is it that in some western jurisdictions there's a notion of property tax?

If a owner buys a property, why do they need to pay further and periodically for it, since it is namely theirs?

I can understand that it can be confiscated from the owner for debt purposes, but not for not paying taxes for it.

It seems from my point of view that these property taxes are just a guise of having these properties actually rented to their actual buyers by the state (or government), so this notion seems baseless in my little and insignificant unqualified opinion.

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    Related: politics.stackexchange.com/q/42027/20220
    – F1Krazy
    Nov 18, 2019 at 15:37
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    "If a owner buys a property, why do they need to pay further and periodically for it, since it is namely theirs?" -- There's your first mistake: assuming life is fair and rational.
    – SurpriseDog
    Nov 18, 2019 at 15:59
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    Rather, your first mistake is assuming that if you buy a property, it is yours.
    – user253751
    Nov 18, 2019 at 16:33
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    @user253751 Well owning's the purpose and that's what it's supposed to be.
    – abdul
    Nov 18, 2019 at 17:20
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    @abdul "Ownership" is more complicated than the word makes it appear.
    – user253751
    Nov 18, 2019 at 17:29

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