In Marxist theory, is use-value dependent on the amount of labour that goes into the creation of a commodity?
If so, is the relevant labour the amount of abstract social labour or useful-labour?
I am asking this, because there are two seemingly contradictory passages on use-value in The Capital:
"The utility of a thing makes it a use-value.  But this utility is not a thing of air. Being limited by the physical properties of the commodity, it has no existence apart from that commodity. A commodity, such as iron, corn, or a diamond, is therefore, so far as it is a material thing, a use-value, something useful. This property of a commodity is independent of the amount of labour required to appropriate its useful qualities."
"A use-value, or useful article, therefore, has value only because human labour in the abstract has been embodied or materialised in it. How, then, is the magnitude of this value to be measured? Plainly, by the quantity of the value-creating substance, the labour, contained in the article. The quantity of labour, however, is measured by its duration, and labour-time in its turn finds its standard in weeks, days, and hours."
Both quotes taken from [Capital Volume I, Chapter 1, Section 1, https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/ch01.htm ]. Emphasis added by me.