According to this Ngram there had been a rise in using the word "revolution" through 1986 and 1969.

What could be the reason? could it be because of a special upheaval in the world?

Any answer is appreciated!

  • I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it's trivial and speculative – Rohit Feb 22 '20 at 14:14
  • @Rohit , what's your definition of 'off-topic' ? – elyar abad Feb 23 '20 at 10:04
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    You will find a lot of statistical features in any data. Asking people to speculate for you, with little background, seems off topic to me. – Rohit Feb 23 '20 at 11:51
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    @Rohit; yeah! you're right. But I think the word 'revolution' in a politics-oriented community is not that much off-topic. any way . . . I got kinda my answer! – elyar abad Feb 23 '20 at 15:55

It's easily explained. 1968 is remembered as a year of political upheaval and change (see Protests of 1968). These years saw protest movements and political upheaval in the West, but also among Pact of Warsaw members and in other countries. Many of these events had a profound effect over the following years,, e.g.:

Furthermore, much of Africa had recently gained its independendence (see Decolonisation of Africa).

Other events that had a huge impact in 1969:

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