-4

Does France deny the genocide against Algerian people during their occupation of Algeria? Did France ever apologize to any African country for these incidents?

Here some articles about French actions against Algerian people:

  1. Middle East Monitor: Algeria: Renewed calls for France to recognize colonial crimes

  2. Middle East Monitor: Algeria to sue France if it fails to recognize crimes

  3. New York Times: Rwanda Marks 25 Years Since the Genocide. The Country Is Still Grappling With Its Legacy.

  4. Wikipedia: Paris Massacre of 1961

  5. Wikipedia: Sétif and Guelma massacre

  6. Aljazeera: France urged to admit 1945 massacre

  7. Book: Reading notes on French Collonial massacres in Algeria

  • 2
    @KhalilAlHooti I edited the question in an attempt to improve it - feel free to revert the edit if you prefer your version, but if you want to keep the apparently disputed 2 million number I suggest adding a link to a credible source that supports the claim. – Peter Mar 2 at 11:57
  • 4
    While colonization-related crimes were not acknowledged during a long time, France has slowly come to admitting its responsibilities. Recently Macron called the colonization of Algeria a crime against humanity (theatlantic.com/international/archive/2018/09/…). However the accusation of genocide is very questionable, since France never had a systematic policy to kill Algerians. – Erwan Mar 2 at 13:20
  • 1
    I can understand that from your perspective if somebody occupied your country, you want to consider it as a disaster, but to claim genocide or systematic and large scale killing of innocent people, you need to provide some sort of credible sources. As far as I know, France behavior was more or less similar to any other countries that tried to colonize Africa such as UK, Italy, Germany, etc. So, please provide a credible source for your claims if you want to get your question open. Otherwise I prefer to leave it closed... – Alone Programmer Mar 2 at 14:35
  • 3
    @KhalilAlHooti Please highlight which part of each reference is relevant for your question instead of just giving the link and asking people to read the whole page to find what's going on. Also, please excuse me cause I don't mean to be peaky on you, but still I think these references are just biased cause for example your last reference is from a Turkish news website, which obviously is biased towards Algerian cause France criminalized denying Armenian genocide in 2011 (see the answer below). – Alone Programmer Mar 2 at 16:46
  • 3
    @ItalianPhilosophers4Monica: alas I'm not seeing how this is going to turn into a good question with the OP "at the helm". He's broaden it to ask if France ever apologized for anything colonial or post-colonial. Never mind the tone of the question, which makes "loaded question" an understatement. "Have you ever apologized for any/all of your genocides, which were many?" – Fizz Mar 2 at 20:14
11

France apologised for the Sétif & Guelma massacre in 2005, which is the only accusation of french genocide in Algeria that I'm aware of, however even the largest estimate of the death toll sits at 45,000, not 2,000,000.

From the article above:

On February 2005, Hubert Colin de Verdière, France’s ambassador to Algeria, formally apologised for the massacre, calling it an “inexcusable tragedy”. President of Algeria Abdelaziz Bouteflika has called the Setif massacre the beginning of a “genocide” perpetrated during the Algerian War by French occupation forces. France has denounced this description.

The point of contention seems to be whether the massacre should be defined as genocide, with Turkey accusing France of hypocrisy in 2011 after the French criminalised denying the Armenian genocide. The semantic debate has increased in fervour since the 2005 apology. At that time, Algerian newspaper El Watan released a special issue, in which they described the massacre as genocide, however the French government's point of view appears to be that the victims of the massacre were targeted to quell Algerian nationalism, and not because of their Algerian ethnicity - therefore failing the definition of genocide.

| improve this answer | |
  • If in one day 45k people died, Imagine how many died in more than 20 years of France occupation of Algeria. In your link, I have not seen any official apology from France for at least those 45k who died in one day. – Khalil Al Hooti Mar 2 at 10:45
  • 6
    @KhalilAlHooti From the first link: "On February 2005, Hubert Colin de Verdière, France’s ambassador to Algeria, formally apologised for the massacre, calling it an “inexcusable tragedy”". – CDJB Mar 2 at 10:46
  • 4
    @Khalil Al Hooti: 1) Imagination is not evidence. 2) People die in wars. Not all, or even most, of those deaths can be construed as genocide. For instance, the US Civil War killed about 2% of the entire population - close to 10% of military-age men - yet I don't think anyone would call those deaths genocide. history.com/news/civil-war-deadlier-than-previously-thought – jamesqf Mar 2 at 18:27
  • @KhalilAlHooti I should also point out that the figure of 45k victims is the highest estimate I could find, and accounts for all the deaths in that uprising as a whole, not just in one day. In fact, there were only 5,000 people at the demonstration that sparked the massacre. – CDJB Mar 2 at 19:56

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .