If they are not fakes, then it is really interesting - as long as USAID, for example, marks foreign elections with big gap as possibly(but not strictly) non-fair.
The question is:
Does such a gap in polling (if it really exists) only happen the US?
Question does not ask about inner origins of such gaps - seems, that it was found out in another question here. Just want to compare with other countries - western or not - if there are also such gaps, as that article said.
If you have proved sources, that the links above are fakes, please provide it in your answer - it would also answer the question - as long as there would be no more question.