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Both countries have declared a lockdown. So what went wrong in the USA?

Why has COVID-19 affected less people in India that in the USA?

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    There is a similar question politics.stackexchange.com/questions/52388/… and there is no answer to it.. – user2501323 Apr 3 '20 at 13:53
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    Since the numbers change from day to day, please give a bit of leading contrast in the form of numbers, e.g. "On such and such date Nation X had n cases per million people, an Nation Y had 3n cases." – agc Apr 3 '20 at 14:02
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    Frankly these compare country X with Y are a bit tiresome, especially when the question asks "why" instead of what different measures did they take; lockdowns are hardly the same everywhere despite the name. The US is not shooting people in the streets. But technically, such "why" questions they are on-topic here, even if they often fall into the fallacy of assuming correlation implies causation, so I'm [rather reluctantly] voting to reopen. – Fizz Apr 3 '20 at 20:32
  • The better kind of question, in terms of being a a better fit for this site is like politics.stackexchange.com/questions/50942/… or politics.stackexchange.com/questions/51215/… They also show you that not all lockdowns are the same. – Fizz Apr 3 '20 at 20:34
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    @Fizz The problem is that any answer is going to be speculative. No one knows how many people are infected in India and no one can know how that number will change in the future. – divibisan Apr 3 '20 at 20:59
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India is not testing much. You can go here and play around with testing relative to the population of some countries. While the US has already a relatively low testing rate given with 25 daily tests per million people, the number of India is even smaller. If you don't test, you can't count infected people

tests per million people

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