Dicey first wrote that Constitutional Conventions (CC for short) are "rules meant to ensure the ultimate supremacy of the true political sovereign, or, in other words, of the electoral body" in 1885. Is this statement true in 2020 in UK? Please answer "yes" or "no", before writing details.
No is my answer, because to decide if a CC exists, the Supreme Court of Canada (in Re: Resolution to amend the Constitution  1 S.C.R. 753) and the UK Supreme Court (in R (Evans) v. Attorney General  UKSC 21) both applied the Jennings Test that requires you to ask three questions. According to p. 51 of Public Law, the authors improve Jenning's original three questions to
"how strong is the precedent"
"to what extent do the actors feel bound by it [the precedent], and"
"how good is the reason for" the rule?
Jennings Test clearly requires more than Dicey's statement that doesn't require anything like these three questions. Therefore Dicey's theory fails in 2020. Correct?