According to https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/a/47814/25402 1 in 2000 men's cause of death is police violence while the corresponding number for women is 1 in 33 000.
Risk is highest for black men, who (at current levels of risk) face about a 1 in 1000 chance of being killed by police over the life course. The average lifetime odds of being killed by police are about 1 in 2000 for men and about 1 in 33000 for women.
Is that difference proportional? Naïvely, do men commit 16.5 times as many crimes as women? Less naïvely, do men commit 16.5 times as many crimes of types that motivate the police to use lethal violence?
With the latter I mean that one could motivate that it is reasonable that e.g., armed robbery or school shootings is met with more violence than e.g. shoplifting or speeding on a freeway.