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The Republic by the Spanish Wikipedia is:

Republic (from latin res publica, «the politic, the public»), in a wide sense, is a politic system based on the law's empire, the law ( the constitution) and the equality before the law as a way to stop the possible power abuses of the rulers, the government or the majorities, with the objective to protect the fundamental rights and the civil liberties.

If in theory all the citizens are equal before the law, having same rights, they should have the same chance to become a candidate for any government position as governor or president for example. Then:

  • Why some Republics request to their citizens for a party's support, a huge signature list or money to become a candidate?
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It is very normal that candidates require a significant number of signatures before they can become a candidate, and sometimes a monetary deposit which is refunded if you get a certain percentage of the electorate. The purpose there is to exclude candidates who have no chance whatsoever of being elected. Such candidates only serve to confuse the electorate and disrupt the process, and they also cost significant amounts of taxpayers money to put them on the ballot. If you can't get a few hundred signatures, then there is zero chance that you will be elected.

I know of no country that requires a party support before you can be on the ballot, and candidates sometimes go on ballots under party names that consist of only a few members. Candidates without parties are called 'independent".

  • If this was limited to signatures it would make sense, but requesting money casts out poor people/parties... – o0'. Dec 28 '12 at 10:21
  • The amount of money is usually very low, and I've never heard of anyone who had any chance of being elected not being able to raise the money. – DJClayworth Dec 28 '12 at 17:06
  • You can't be on the ballot for member of the European Parliament, except as a member of a party. There are other similar elections. – Martin Bonner Jul 12 at 10:14
  • @MartinBonner Do you have a reference? – DJClayworth Jul 12 at 13:09
  • Chasing round a bit, I'm not quite so sure it is true across the EU, but it certainly is true in the UK: theguardian.com/politics/2019/may/21/… – Martin Bonner Jul 12 at 13:22
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  1. This is a means of keeping radical fringe parties from inadvertently gaining power. Germany, for example, requires all parties to have at least 5% of the vote in order to have seats in parliament. Prior to the Nazis taking over, they were a minority party who coopted many fringe parties into a coalition from which they then launched into dictatorship. Many of the smallest parties are single issue ones that can be used in such a way, so some countries ban the smallest ones in order to prevent this from happening again.

  2. Ballots are confusing enough for some people (Witness Florida!). By limiting ballot access to complete fringe parties, the ballot can be more easily understood by, say, the illiterate or the uninformed. At least in the United States, literacy tests are barred by Constitutional Amendment. Generally speaking, there is public good in having a limited number of choices (usually in Virginia we have about 6, rather than say, 600). Not only is there a cost to printing such a ballot, but there is also a cost in reading it.

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    I think your first paragraph is off-target (the question isn't about minimum votes) but your second is on target. – DJClayworth Dec 27 '12 at 20:20

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