As far as I'm aware, America doesn't put a cap on how much money you can spend on campaigning. This is unlike countries such as Britain (where the cap is £30,000 per constituency).

If the lack of a cap has no intention to it, why has it not been implemented? Otherwise, what's the intention?

  • 2
    It is intentional, since a cap on campaign spending would be a cap on political speech. The US system accepts the drawbacks to uphold this principle. – o.m. Oct 22 '20 at 18:55
  • Ah yes. Sorry, I was meant to imply that is an answer in and of itself – yolo Oct 22 '20 at 18:57
  • @o.m. Do you have anything to corroborate this? – yolo Oct 22 '20 at 18:58
  • No time to look for the links today, which is why this is a comment and not an answer. As an answer it would be insufficient. – o.m. Oct 22 '20 at 18:59
  • @o.m. I think you might be going a bit far with that. As JoeW pointed out, that "drawback" came from a 5-4 Supreme Court ruling. So, it's not like there was a debate or a democratic process behind it – divibisan Oct 22 '20 at 20:35

Because political spending has been ruled to be protected under the first amendment as free speech. Because of that unlimited spending is allowed.

Citizens United versus FEC

A 5-4 majority of the Supreme Court sided with Citizens United, ruling that corporations and other outside groups can spend unlimited money on elections.

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