According to Wikipedia, backed by a couple of sources, Iran and Saudi Arabia share the same age of majority: 8 for girls, 14 for boys.
Now, according to the sources, this is due to sharia law.
However, I find this puzzling for some reasons:
- there are many countries with sharia law, yet only Iran and Saudi Arabia use this law, apparently
- Iran and Saudi Arabia are one Shia and one Sunni country, actually they are the biggest Sunni and the biggest Shia country in Middle East, and they are rivals because of that
So, how and why did it happen that those two rivals, and only them, chose to apply this specific law, which has instead been ignored by every other sharia country?
Hardly a coincidence, but I'm completely clueless about what could be the reason.
Edit: this, however, disagrees with the original German wiki article from which this one was translated. Also, while the source for Iran apparently is ok, I couldn't find in the source for Saudi Arabia any information about that.
I would then put all the blame on Wikipedia and consider the case closed, but if someone knows better, I'd gladly hear his answer.