In my continued attempt to understand American politics, I am now writing another question that will probably spiral out of control soon. I do apologize for any mistakes in my framing of this question.
In my previous question regarding contraception, one counter-argument popped up in the comments a few times regarding Viagra. The only counter-argument that was presented is one in which it's pointed out that Viagra is also used as a medication. However, so are hormonal contraceptives.
I found an article that shows that the Republicans did ban Medicaid and Medicare from paying for Viagra in 2005. However, more recent headlines show Republicans being for policies that allow companies to deny contraceptive coverage for their employees, while they do not seem to be against forcing those same companies to continue paying for Viagra. The Trump administration issued new rules to the Affordable Care Act to do just this.
Why this inconsistency?