The question speaks for itself. An existing question is facially similar but doesn't get at this particular issue.


Yes. In the top answer to The linked, facially similar question, the reasoning behind the "Tuesday that follows the first Monday of November," has to do with the fact that nature doesn't negotiate and so election proceedings needed to be made convenient to farming schedules. That specific formulation, means that Election day can be as early as 11/2 (if November begins on a Monday) and as late as 11/8 (if November begins on a Tuesday).

This decision was made in 1845, 240 years AFTER the Gunpower Plot. While Guy Fawkes Night was made law in 1606, it is a holiday celebrating the deliverance of the British government from the violence that could have proceeded had Fawkes not been stopped.

By 1845, the identity of Americans was three generations removed from that of British Colonists. As such, they were not in the habit of celebrating Guy Fawkes Night or even paying much mind to the traditions and celebratory schedule of Great Britain.

The choice of the Tuesday after the first Monday in November, in particular, was simply meant to synergize with what was then the law of the land: that electors needed to be selected within the 30-day window before the first Wednesday of December.

The Congressional Record from when the bill passed includes this passage for specific motive:

"...His object in making this change was to avoid the necessity of changing the laws in relation to the day on which the electorcal colleges now meet; for the first Tuesday of November might, in some cases, be more than thirty days from the first Wednesday in December."

This also meant that electors could be prepared to travel before the weather got nasty in winter.

  • 5
    The first Tuesday in November runs the risk of being 11/1. The point of having it on Tuesday was to allow a day for people to travel to their polling site (which could take a whole day in 1845), without requiring them to skip church on Sunday. If Election Day fell on 11/1, then that means people have to begin travel on the last day of October, and now the election process extends over multiple months. It's symbolically, and rhetorically, simpler to just make sure that "November is Election Season." Nov 5 at 19:41
  • 1
    Not sure why the election process, including any necessary travel, needs to be completely within one month. Certainly the selection of candidates and electors by either the party or by the legislature begins well before then.
    – doneal24
    Nov 5 at 19:46
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    @ohwilleke It seems like a very flimsy claim that it is anyway related to Guy Fawkes day. They wanted it to be in early November and they didn't want it to be the first day in November which is why it is after the first Monday in the month. Trying to link it to a holiday in the UK is just silly and a very big stretch.
    – Joe W
    Nov 5 at 19:58
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    @ohwilleke In digging up the historical evidence you desire, I stand corrected: The day was chosen to ensure that the 11/1 case didn't cause Election Day to fall prematurely, which is to say more than 30 days before the first Wednesday in December. Quote and citation to follow. Nov 5 at 20:01
  • 3
    I don't see why it would not have been held on Guy Fawkes Day if that were the case. Moreover, Guy Fawkes Day is a pro-British holiday that celebrates the defeat of a plotter against Britain. Why would the American colonists want to celebrate that?
    – Obie 2.0
    Nov 5 at 21:05

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