Inspired by this question on law.stackexchange, but I think my question fits better on politics.
From this answer, "sales of residence are exempt from the deceptive trade practices provisions of the California Civil Code. California Civil Code § 1754."
From Legislating for the Consumer: An Insider's Analysisof the Consumers Legal Remedies Act (pdf, page number 10, pdf page 11), "The same exemption is found in the Unruh Act 31 and guidance in application may be obtained by examining the legal history of the appropriate section of that statute."
That section was added in 1969, in AB 2101 in response to Morgan v Reasor Corp. But as far as I can tell, this was just to clarify that it also excluded construction.
When I try to search for why sale of buildings and real property were excluded, I get a bunch of results about how the Unruh Act applies to realtors, so I think it might just not apply to private sales by individuals.
Why did the Unruh Act exclude sale of buildings and real property?