India has one of the lowest female labour participation rates in the world (ref), this twitter thread says that as Indian families become wealthier, they tighten female mobility to buy respectability in rural areas (backed by some papers). My interest is in this remark:

But among Indian Muslims, wealth and upward mobility are NOT associated with greater female seclusion.

Does there exist theoretical explanation/narrative on why Indian Muslims don't follow the general trend?

  • The difference might be smaller than you think: just because for non-muslim Indians there is an association detectable, doesn't mean it's big. Maybe it's also very weak and for Muslims it might even be there, just not detectable in the data. I would also look at the strength of the correlations before asking for explanations. Feb 15, 2022 at 15:09
  • 7
    A key detail that the tweet emphasizes but the question ignores is that the correlation between wealth and female seclusion exists in only in rural areas. Muslims are somewhat more likely to live in towns and cities than Hindus. So you may want to look at the numbers to see if religion really is the most relevant variable.
    – Brian Z
    Feb 15, 2022 at 15:20


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