I am wondering why the timing is so strange, because Russia said it wouldn't invade Ukraine, and didn't do so until recently right after the Olympic Games ended.

Is there a reason for this? Did they want to do it so that the media is focused on the current events instead of the Olympics, or is there some other more specific motivations that might have led to this strange timing?

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    I suspect the only one who could answer this question is Vladimir Putin, and I don't think he frequents this site. Anyone else would just be speculating - though such speculation might be informative.
    – Just Me
    Feb 26, 2022 at 17:38
  • It's not just speculation. I don't think any country invaded another country during the Olympics games, especially if they were attending the events. There has to be a very specific reason for this.
    – Sayaman
    Feb 26, 2022 at 17:43
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  • I think it is coincidence.
    – gnicko
    Feb 26, 2022 at 17:50
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    The IOC has condemned Russia for violating the Olympic truce. The games are not over until the Paraolympics are complete.
    – doneal24
    Feb 26, 2022 at 19:27

1 Answer 1


Because the winter Olympics were held in Beijing and Putin needs the support of China to get away with the potential sanctions from Western.(See my answer here)

China really wanted the winter Olympics to be held successfully without any external harassments, so that they could leave a "positive image" to the world, noticing that the Olympics were already diplomatically boycotted by many countries. This arrangement could be part of the talk between Xi and Putin on Feb 4 when they signed the deal (again see link above).

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    This answer is s bit speculative. It offers a motivation but no evidence for its claims. It would be better if it would use "would" or "could" in all places that are not covered by external sources Feb 26, 2022 at 21:51
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    Especially since Putin did launch a war during the 2008 Olympics that were held in Beijing... Feb 26, 2022 at 23:09

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