I imagine that lack of extradition treaties is somewhat of a hindrance for establishing visa-free travel between countries, on the argument that if (potential) criminals can enter freely (and then do some crime) one should be at least able to get them extradited thereafter. (Of course, visas are not a perfect protection against criminals entering.)

So, are there examples of visa-free travel agreements between countries that have no mutual extradition agreements whatsoever? In particular any such examples involving the US or EU countries?

  • Most visa-free travel is the result of unilateral action rather than bilateral agreement.
    – phoog
    Jun 24, 2022 at 23:13
  • @phoog: I can imagine poor country giving visa-free travel to rich country to encourage tourism and what not, and so not asking for much if anything in return. Which is why I also asked if examples involving the not so poor US or EU countries exist (as the visa-free zone/giver).
    – Fizz
    Jun 24, 2022 at 23:25
  • So, apparently Ukraine had visa-free regime for Russian citizens. reuters.com/world/europe/… I think Russia doesn't extradite to anywhere, including Ukraine. It is kinda odd that Ukraine apparently took 3 months after the Feb invasion to suspend that regime though, so I'm not sure how widespread/operational it still was...
    – Fizz
    Jun 24, 2022 at 23:38
  • Russia has ratified the European Convention on Extradition in 1999. It's one of the treaties under the auspices of the Council of Europe, but there are four non-member state signatoires: Israel, Russia, South Africa and Republic of Korea.
    – ccprog
    Jun 25, 2022 at 0:43
  • @ccprog: they registered a fairly giant exception upon signature, as far as I can tell theguardian.com/world/2007/may/22/russia.lukeharding
    – Fizz
    Jun 25, 2022 at 0:58


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