In Przeworski et al.'s Democracy and Development: Political Institutions and Well-Being in the World, 1950-1990 (pages 28-29), four rules for regime classification are proposed:
A regime is classified as a dictatorship during a particular year if at least one of these conditions holds:
Rule 1: "Executive selection." The chief executive is not elected.
Rule 2: "Legislative selection." The legislature is not elected.
Rule 3: "Party." There is no more than one party. Specifically, this rule applies if (1) there are no parties or (2) there is only one party or (3) the current term in office ends in the establishment of non-party or one-party rule or (4) the incumbents unconstitutionally close the legislature and rewrite the rules in the favor.
Rule 4: "Alternation" (applies only to regimes that have passed the previous three rules). The incumbents will have or already have held office continuously by virtue of elections for more than two terms or have held office without being elected for any duration of their current tenure in office, and until today or until the time when they were overthrown they had not lost an election.
I am a bit confused by these rules. Specifically, as stated in the title of this post, does the alternation rule imply the U.S. during the Roosevelt administration shall be categorized as a dictatorship?
I think the tricky part of this example falls into the question: whether the U.S. before, during, and after the Roosevelt administration shall be considered three regimes, with the first and third ones (before and after) being democratic regimes and the second one (during) being dictatorship, or not. (See this post for a related question on regime change.)
If we regard the U.S. through its history (or at least through this pre- and post-Roosevelt period) as one (clearly democratic) regime, then the answer to the title question would be no; or perhaps more properly, the question is not well asked because the U.S. during the Roosevelt administration is not "a" regime but instead part of a regime. If, on the other hand, we regard the pre-Roosevelt, Roosevelt administration, and post-Roosevelt America as three regimes, then according to Przeworski et al.'s rules, we might have to say yes to the title question.
Hence, I think one question we need to ask is this: Should the basic democratic institutions of the U.S. be considered transformed (see here) at the time when the U.S. entered Roosevelt's era?
Could people please kindly share your thoughts on it? (It could be a thought on the question in the preceding paragraph, on the title question, on how to think about the title question and the rules, or on anything that you think is related and worth attention.)
I apologize for asking a question that is to some extent "not definitively formulated".
I would really appreciate when you post a comment or an answer you could include the necessary historical background knowledge (or a link to it).