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Israel has wondered aloud why they are the only ones that are having their products labelled even though there are 100s of terrirotorial disputes. Aside from anti-israel bias - Is there a logical reason?

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    Your sources, please? For example, Northern Cyprus products need no separate labelling because they are embargoed and only Turkey allows them en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Embargo_against_Northern_Cyprus. – SJuan76 Nov 16 '15 at 20:28
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    No, your question was "Why only is Israel punished?". Turns out it is not only Israel, in fact by Northen Cyprus standard the "punishment" is quite light. Oh, don't forget economical sanctions against Russia for the Ukraine conflict, too (just from the back of my mind, too lazy to do an extensive list). – SJuan76 Nov 16 '15 at 20:35
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    @Anixx Thank you for the "compare anyone who disagrees with Israel Government politics to Nazi Germany" apportation, I was worried about Internet users suddenly having regained common sense. And yes, it is a measure of pressure (why else would you make the effort to implement it?) but, as stated above, Israel is not the only country to suffer those measures and, in fact, it is a way lighter action than other measures to similar situations. – SJuan76 Nov 25 '15 at 23:23
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    @Anixx if your point is the Western government agitating neo-nazi groups to get Israel to cede, it is even crazier because a) political suicide b) no actual effect on Israel (victims will be Western Jewish people, attacks would reinforce Israel government claims of being singled out and possible emigration to Israel will add to Israel power) and c) nowadays most people in power knows that such tactics do not come with an "off" switch incorporated so they can easily become uncontrolled. If you claim that Western governments are anti-Jewish, citations please. – SJuan76 Nov 25 '15 at 23:53
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    @Anixx with all the due respect, you are just repeating the "anyone who does not agree with Israel Government policies is anti-Jewish". Yes, and anyone who did not like Stalin was anti-Russian, and anyone who does not agree with me is an enemy of Mankind. We get it, it is not that it is a new argument. Your "valuable apportation" and its lack of any evidence has been duly noted, thank you. – SJuan76 Nov 26 '15 at 0:05
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Products has to be labelled with their origin and products from the occupied territories are not made in Israel, but in the occupied territories and thus they have to be labelled as such. Just as you can't stamp "Made in Germany" on something that is made in France. It's not anti-French, but just a matter of correct labelling.

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    As far as I know Tibet is not occupied as such, but a part of China. People in Tibet are citizens of China and they follow Chinese law. – liftarn Nov 30 '15 at 8:09
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    @user4012 Actually (muslim) Uighurs in Chinese-occupied Xinjiang (or Uighurstan as they'd prefer it be known) look on at Tibetans' international influence with envy. – user56reinstatemonica8 Nov 30 '15 at 23:41
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    @user4012 You totally failed to read what I wrote. Tibet is a part of China. They follow Chinese law. The people living there are Chinese citizens. The areas occupied by Israel does not follow Israeli law and the people living there are not considered citizens of Israel. Thus Tibet is legally a part of China while the occupied areas are not a part of Israel. – liftarn Dec 2 '15 at 14:56
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    @user4012 Ah, the one state solution. There are those that favour that one. From a labelling standpoint I guess that would mean products would be allowed to be marked "Made in Israel" since they are made in Israel. – liftarn Dec 3 '15 at 8:06
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    Actually found out that the EU prohibits import from Crimea. So, over the occupation of Crimea, the EU implemented a much harsher measure than simply requiring labelling. – user69715 Apr 15 '16 at 20:03

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