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Israel has wondered aloud why they are the only ones that are having their products labelled even though there are 100s of terrirotorial disputes. Aside from anti-israel bias - Is there a logical reason?

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    Your sources, please? For example, Northern Cyprus products need no separate labelling because they are embargoed and only Turkey allows them en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Embargo_against_Northern_Cyprus.
    – SJuan76
    Commented Nov 16, 2015 at 20:28
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    No, your question was "Why only is Israel punished?". Turns out it is not only Israel, in fact by Northen Cyprus standard the "punishment" is quite light. Oh, don't forget economical sanctions against Russia for the Ukraine conflict, too (just from the back of my mind, too lazy to do an extensive list).
    – SJuan76
    Commented Nov 16, 2015 at 20:35
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    @Anixx Thank you for the "compare anyone who disagrees with Israel Government politics to Nazi Germany" apportation, I was worried about Internet users suddenly having regained common sense. And yes, it is a measure of pressure (why else would you make the effort to implement it?) but, as stated above, Israel is not the only country to suffer those measures and, in fact, it is a way lighter action than other measures to similar situations.
    – SJuan76
    Commented Nov 25, 2015 at 23:23
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    @Anixx I did not miss the point. You are mixing a measure against actions in violation of international law and several international agreements with measures against innocent people based on racial/religious profiling. Is like saying that economical sanctions against Russia for the Ukraine invasion are an attempt to criminalize all Russian people.
    – SJuan76
    Commented Nov 25, 2015 at 23:32
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    @Anixx with all the due respect, you are just repeating the "anyone who does not agree with Israel Government policies is anti-Jewish". Yes, and anyone who did not like Stalin was anti-Russian, and anyone who does not agree with me is an enemy of Mankind. We get it, it is not that it is a new argument. Your "valuable apportation" and its lack of any evidence has been duly noted, thank you.
    – SJuan76
    Commented Nov 26, 2015 at 0:05

1 Answer 1

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Products have to be labelled with their origin. Products from the occupied territories are not made in Israel, but in the occupied territories and thus they must be labelled as such. Just as you can't stamp "Made in Germany" on something that is made in France. It isn't anti-French, but rather, a matter of correct labelling.

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    As far as I know Tibet is not occupied as such, but a part of China. People in Tibet are citizens of China and they follow Chinese law.
    – liftarn
    Commented Nov 30, 2015 at 8:09
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    @user4012 You totally failed to read what I wrote. Tibet is a part of China. They follow Chinese law. The people living there are Chinese citizens. The areas occupied by Israel does not follow Israeli law and the people living there are not considered citizens of Israel. Thus Tibet is legally a part of China while the occupied areas are not a part of Israel.
    – liftarn
    Commented Dec 2, 2015 at 14:56
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    @user4012 Ah, the one state solution. There are those that favour that one. From a labelling standpoint I guess that would mean products would be allowed to be marked "Made in Israel" since they are made in Israel.
    – liftarn
    Commented Dec 3, 2015 at 8:06
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    @user4012 Does the EU recognize China's sovereignty in Tibet? If yes, then it wouldn't be "occupied territory" from EU's point of view. Probably a helpful comparison is Crimea, whose annexation by Russia is not considered legitimate.
    – user69715
    Commented Apr 15, 2016 at 19:59
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    Actually found out that the EU prohibits import from Crimea. So, over the occupation of Crimea, the EU implemented a much harsher measure than simply requiring labelling.
    – user69715
    Commented Apr 15, 2016 at 20:03

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