11 votes

Why do non-federations need bicameral parliaments?

The UK has been a unitary state for much of its history, and its Parliament has had two Houses for most of that time. The role of the House of Lords is as the quote in the question states. It's not ...
Steve Melnikoff's user avatar
9 votes

Why are US state (as opposed to federal) legislatures bicameral?

In the US, state and local legislatures can choose to be bicameral, unicameral or something else. As of today, all state legislatures are bicameral, except in Nebraska, which is unicameral. Most ...
Michael Benjamin's user avatar
8 votes

Why do non-federations need bicameral parliaments?

With a couple of exceptions where bicameral parliaments grew out of tradition (i.e. probably only England), at some point in history a select group of people from a state came together and began ...
Jan's user avatar
  • 13.1k
8 votes

Why do non-federations need bicameral parliaments?

Many of the bicameral legislatures were probably created in imitation of the UK Parliament, and of other European parliaments which were formed on similar lines for similar reasons. If you look at the ...
David Siegel's user avatar
  • 2,621
7 votes
Accepted

Are there ways to keep the majority in check in a unicameral legislative system?

There are several sources of power which may exist in a country and which are to some degree independent of the Legislature, and are therefore to some degree anti-democratic: A clear constitution and ...
James K's user avatar
  • 119k
6 votes
Accepted

Why is US legislation formulated independently by both chambers?

Both houses can introduce bills because they are intended to have equal power The United States Congress does not have a lower and upper house, instead it has two separate but equal houses. The ...
JonK's user avatar
  • 1,167
5 votes
Accepted

Why do non-federations need bicameral parliaments?

The simple, additional answer besides "copies of UK", is that more countries have territorial representation than those which are formal federations. An example would be Spain--it has 17 ...
Dolphin 613 Motorboat's user avatar
4 votes

Why are US state (as opposed to federal) legislatures bicameral?

County-based districts The same consideration does not seem to exist on the state level. While that is true now, it did not used to be true. Prior to the court case Reynolds v. Sims, it was not ...
Brythan's user avatar
  • 89.6k
3 votes

Why is US legislation formulated independently by both chambers?

For a bill to reach the president, both chambers of Congress must pass the same bill. The process of reconciliation is the process by which the two chambers negotiate the differences between two ...
phoog's user avatar
  • 17.8k
3 votes

Why do non-federations need bicameral parliaments?

Because even unitary countries can be seen as federations, most of them are divided in regions and many have strong cultural differences between the regions. The majority of the lower house usually is ...
FluidCode's user avatar
  • 7,108
2 votes

Why was the Union Budget presented in the Lok Sabha (lower house) instead of the Rajya Sabha (upper house)?

Conventionally, in India, the directly-elected lower house is more powerful in a lot of matters than the indirectly elected upper house. One such case is the passing of money bills. The Union budget ...
WorldGov's user avatar
  • 650
1 vote

Why is US legislation formulated independently by both chambers?

There may be times when a President wished that he or she had the ability that the UK Prime Minister has to create new laws. The framers of the constitution seemed to equate "efficiency" with "...
James K's user avatar
  • 119k

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