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Dec 2, 2016 at 2:05 comment added phoog @oals yes. For the last couple of censuses or so, "hispanic" has been an add-on, since people from Latin America can have African, European, or Native American blood in varying proportion. So you pick a race to identify yourself, and then you also say whether or not you are hispanic.
Dec 1, 2016 at 18:17 comment added oals @phoog Well, as a European without much exposure to US racial categorisation, I just couldn't wrap my head around the logical expression. I know AA and Black are the same, but I couldn't fathom what sorts of demographics would choose to identify with Hispanic in addition to Black/AA. So basically dark-skinned people from Latin America (Caribbean?), you say?
Dec 1, 2016 at 10:27 comment added phoog @oals it means just what it says. The reason for the "non-hispanic" bit is to exclude black people who immigrated to the US from Latin America and their descendants, presumably because they tend to have a somewhat different political outlook from those who are descended from slaves.
Dec 1, 2016 at 10:24 comment added phoog @O.M.Y. That long curve corresponds to the cotton-growing regions to which African slaves were brought.
Dec 1, 2016 at 10:22 comment added phoog @Shane this is a map of counties, not of electoral districts. Counties can't be gerrymandered.
Nov 10, 2016 at 17:48 comment added oals What does "identifying as both black or African American and non-Hispanic" mean?
Nov 9, 2016 at 20:59 comment added O.M.Y. To state that the votes lean Dem by race may be accurate, but even if you are right then you are still left with the question why are African Americans located along that curve in such high concentration? What is it that focuses them specifically along that curve itself?
Nov 9, 2016 at 19:57 history edited Philip Klöcking CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 9, 2016 at 19:30 comment added user1530 @curiousdannii it's narrow because that's where the high density population is. Plotting votes geographically is incredibly deceiving. It always looks like the US is 90% republican. When, in fact, over the past few elections, those actually voting republican have been the minority. Population adjusted maps are much more telling.
Nov 9, 2016 at 19:28 comment added user1530 It's never "obvious and self explanatory". There's always more to it. I'm sure race is a part of it, but just a part.
Nov 9, 2016 at 15:31 comment added curiousdannii @Shane Maybe, though a lot look pretty regular. But maybe that just means they've been very skillfully gerrymandered. The US really needs an independent body to do the redistributions,
Nov 9, 2016 at 15:12 comment added Shane @curiousdannii That isn't 'fascinating' so much as 'done on purpose and is called "gerrymandering"' :(
Nov 9, 2016 at 13:47 comment added curiousdannii @ZachMierzejewski That is a much better map! Still quite fascinating that there's a line of sorts with 75+% Black which in places is only one county thick, with a huge drop off on either side.
Nov 9, 2016 at 13:29 comment added Zach Mierzejewski @curiousdannii Yeah, it's a less than ideal map to illustrate this. Here is a more pronounced map. Note the similarities such as the island in northern Georgia, the stripe up and down the Mississippi, and how it comes closer to the coast in South Carolina.
Nov 9, 2016 at 10:10 comment added Brythan "As almost 80% of the African American population voted for the Democratic Party" -- this is incorrect. Less than 70% of the eligible African-American population voted at all and not all of those who voted voted Democrat. You may mean that almost 80% of African-American voters voted Democrat. That would actually be relatively low.
Nov 9, 2016 at 9:59 comment added curiousdannii The graph really needs more colour differentiation to explain why the blue Democrat band is so narrow compared to the wider band of African American residents.
S Nov 9, 2016 at 9:24 history suggested isanae CC BY-SA 3.0
c/e, source
Nov 9, 2016 at 7:43 review Suggested edits
S Nov 9, 2016 at 9:24
Nov 9, 2016 at 6:30 comment added isanae Urban areas also have a higher rate of education and there seems to be correlation between education and voting Democratic in the US. That would make more sense to me than accessibility.
Nov 9, 2016 at 6:24 comment added Philip Klöcking @isanae Bear in mind that this map says "percentage of a county's population", so it is independent of the actual population density. One could argue that in urban areas the accessability of polls - especially for poor people - is way better, though. This would explain the "blend" of the two effects.
Nov 9, 2016 at 6:19 comment added isanae A combination of this map and the density map actually seems to be covering most of the blue counties in the map. It's probably reductive and simplistic, but it's fascinating to me.
Nov 9, 2016 at 6:14 history answered Philip Klöcking CC BY-SA 3.0