Timeline for Why do major referendums have a 50% threshold to change the status quo, rather than a higher value?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 9, 2017 at 11:53 | vote | accept | JonathanReez | ||
| May 3, 2017 at 22:52 | comment | added | WS2 | There are no laws governing how referenda shall be conducted in the UK. There have only ever been three. They are by their very nature ad hoc events. The fact that such requirements, (e.g. for a majority of the entire electorate in order to prevail), were not built in to the specific legislation is a damning indictment of the Cameron government. Especially this is so given that the Conservatives have long held that this principle should apply to Trade Union ballots. The fact is Cameron never remotely considered that he would fail to gain a simple majority. | |
| May 3, 2017 at 16:10 | answer | added | Relaxed | timeline score: 8 | |
| May 3, 2017 at 12:10 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPolitics/status/859741908679225345 | ||
| May 3, 2017 at 9:06 | comment | added | JonathanReez | Related: politics.stackexchange.com/questions/13537/… | |
| May 3, 2017 at 9:06 | history | asked | JonathanReez | CC BY-SA 3.0 |