During his confirmation hearing (video, at minute 10:18), Robert Bork talked about a case called Griswold, which eventually ended up in the Supreme Court.
The Connecticut law apparently "prohibited any person from using any drug, medicinal article or instrument for the purpose of preventing conception." (ibidem., internal quotation marks omitted).
Bork, as seen in the video at 1, thought the law was unenforceable because the police would never obtain a warrant to enter a marital bedroom to find out whether the couple was using contraceptives, nor could the police get a warrant to wiretap and find out whether the couple was using contraceptives. Basically, the police would not be able to get evidence that the couple was using contraceptives.
But was the selling of contraceptives legal? Why would Connecticut ban the use of contraceptives, and not contextually ban its selling? If the selling was a crime too, then it would make sense that the couple would not get contraceptives in the first place. So, for practical purposes, it would not matter whether they could get evidence of the crime, because a couple would be impeded from the using of contraceptives by their inability to find them legally.
Moreover, it is not clear to me whether Bork ever dealt with this case as a Judge. The Wikipedia page of the case says that "the conviction was upheld by the Appellate Division of the Circuit Court, and by the Connecticut Supreme Court." (link), while Bork "was a circuit judge for the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit" (link), so it would appear that Bork never dealt with this case, but I am not sure.