Closely related: Does the NPVIC only take effect once enough states sign for it to have legal force? . That question asks whether, this question asks why.
The National Popular Vote Interstate Compact is written so that:
the agreement would go into effect among participating states only after they collectively represent an absolute majority of votes (currently at least 270) in the Electoral College (ref)
Suppose that the voters of one state, let's say Alaska, have decided that they're tired of waiting and they're going to throw their electors at the winner of the popular vote right now, regardless of the actions of any other state.
As I see it (and maybe I'm wrong) there are only possible two outcomes here. Either:
- The Electoral race comes in so neck-and-neck that Alaska's electoral votes are enough to swing the election. Alaska's three electors are enough to decide the election in favor of the national popular vote winner. The citizens of the state of Alaska get exactly what they wanted, a national popular vote! or...
- The Electoral race isn't close enough for Alaska's votes to matter. Ho-hum, the outcome is the same whether Alaska votes for the NPV winner or Mickey Mouse.
It seems like if a state wants to implement the NPVIC, there's no reason to wait for 270 votes. Yet clearly it was written that way for a reason. What am I missing?
Edit: David Hammen has mentioned in an answer:
If the laws of a state dictate that the state choose electors in accord with the nationwide winner of the election (but potentially against the will of the voters in that state), that would be perfectly valid. However, the laws enabling that elector selection would have to have been passed and enacted prior to the election.
For clarity's sake, that is the situation I'm interested in. A state dutifully, properly, and with ample time prior to any election, changes its laws so that it will, in future elections, award its votes to the NPV winner, without an interstate compact.